Has it been officially confirmed that he was legally drunk, or was this the result of a leak? Remember, in the original article, the hospital spokesperson wouldn't even confirm he'd been admitted.
My main objection here is that to insinuate obstruction of justice, as multiple people in this thread have done, is a HUGE leap to make, borders on libelous, and is conceivably actionable.
"Nonstopdrivel" wrote: