Curious what everyone thinks. He had possession but the ground caused the ball to come out. Isn't that still completion based on the current rules? Am I biased in thinking the Refs screwed us this game?
Originally Posted by: dyeah_gb
I would say he did not yet have possession before going to the ground based on the current rules, as he didn't take 3 steps nor make a football move, before becoming to the ground.
That being said, I didn't get a good enough view of it, it looked.like his hand was mostly underneath the ball and while it popped up, he still re-caught the ball before it touched the ground without him holding it.
Because (I think his hand was underneath it), I think that's one of those calls where normally the review sticks with the call on the field.
Like when the NFL apploged to the Vikings owner publicly but a Harvin catch that was reviewed into a drop where the ball hit the ground and moved but Harvin was mostly underneath it. They apologize publicly because usually that call goes without for the first call on the field was.
So I feel like it could of gone either way... and should of stuck with whatever the original call was, but if his hands wasn't under it as well as I thought (again, I need a better replay), then I understand them over turning it.
Then again, I still say that Harvin play was a drop and that when they stick with these plays they're normal wrong...
So I think the refs got it right, but only if that's what they're going to consistently call.
Too often the tie automatically goes to the offense... which considering the rules and ball control are also in the offensive favor, I feel like that's BS.